Neat. Without knowing much about the indicator, would it be able to go over 100?
Does anyone have something similar for other/all countries?
It’s interesting that Spain is as high as that despite being a Catholic Mediterranean country. It seems like after Franco they did a complete 180.
For Germanic countries it is expected, as early as the 1st century AD, Roman writers were mentioning how much more women were involved in the public life of Germanic societies compared to Roman and Greek women. Same thing was noted by Arabs for Norman/Frankish women during the Crusades.
Out side the law, what would prevent a 100? Like the US doesn’t have a law that would prevent women 100% to chose how they engage in the economy
If women perform better than men it caps at 100?
MAD respect for South Korean women
Can anyone explain the methodology here? How does a country like Saudi Arabia, where a woman can barely leave the house without accompaniment from a male relative rank closely with say China where women can do pretty much anything?
I looked imto my country, Poland. It has 93,8 points where it is missing to 100 necause of pensions. In Poland men retire at 65 and women at 60 and this methodology counts it as female inequality. So it may seem on surfacce that Poland is less equal tham netherlands here amd women have it worse, but it is actually other way around so I suspect the methodology is at best subpar
As a German, women are definitely not economically equal here. There is still a wage gap, and there have been many cases of women being put at a disadvantage compared to men, even in recent years. Legally, men and women are equal, but in society, they are definitely not.
Without looking into the factors within the score, you can’t really draw any conclusions from this. Unfortunately I’m quite busy today, otherwise i would.
Anyone else that has the time to look it up should post as a comment so we don’t all have to read through the links.
Feels like this sub needs a rule where all composite measures should be defined in the post.
Without a breakdown of how a score is tabulated these numbers are pretty much meaningless one way or the other.
Why don’t companies just hire women if they can pay them less, are they stupid?
![[OC] Women's economic equality in the 20 biggest economies](https://www.europesays.com/wp-content/uploads/2025/06/csn2ipjd9o9f1-1240x1024.png)
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Source: [World Bank](https://wbl.worldbank.org/en/wbl)
Tools: [Datawrapper ](https://www.datawrapper.de/)
Neat. Without knowing much about the indicator, would it be able to go over 100?
Does anyone have something similar for other/all countries?
It’s interesting that Spain is as high as that despite being a Catholic Mediterranean country. It seems like after Franco they did a complete 180.
For Germanic countries it is expected, as early as the 1st century AD, Roman writers were mentioning how much more women were involved in the public life of Germanic societies compared to Roman and Greek women. Same thing was noted by Arabs for Norman/Frankish women during the Crusades.
Out side the law, what would prevent a 100? Like the US doesn’t have a law that would prevent women 100% to chose how they engage in the economy
If women perform better than men it caps at 100?
MAD respect for South Korean women
Can anyone explain the methodology here? How does a country like Saudi Arabia, where a woman can barely leave the house without accompaniment from a male relative rank closely with say China where women can do pretty much anything?
I looked imto my country, Poland. It has 93,8 points where it is missing to 100 necause of pensions. In Poland men retire at 65 and women at 60 and this methodology counts it as female inequality. So it may seem on surfacce that Poland is less equal tham netherlands here amd women have it worse, but it is actually other way around so I suspect the methodology is at best subpar
As a German, women are definitely not economically equal here. There is still a wage gap, and there have been many cases of women being put at a disadvantage compared to men, even in recent years. Legally, men and women are equal, but in society, they are definitely not.
Without looking into the factors within the score, you can’t really draw any conclusions from this. Unfortunately I’m quite busy today, otherwise i would.
Anyone else that has the time to look it up should post as a comment so we don’t all have to read through the links.
Feels like this sub needs a rule where all composite measures should be defined in the post.
Without a breakdown of how a score is tabulated these numbers are pretty much meaningless one way or the other.
Why don’t companies just hire women if they can pay them less, are they stupid?
Comments are closed.